Yet it pleased the LORD to bruise him; he has put him to grief. (Isaiah 53:10)There are some people who interpret Jesus' death according to a theory which supposes that God demanded an object for his wrath to satisfy his rage. I have heard this verse just quoted here -- that the LORD was pleased with the sufferings of his Servant -- presented as if God took delight in the suffering as suffering, as satisfaction, as payment for the debt owed, that the suffering was enjoyed for its own sake (that is, precisely because it was suffering). Is this how we understand God?
"As I live," says the Lord GOD, "I have no pleasure in the death of the wicked, but that the wicked turn from his way and live." (Ezekiel 33:11).If God has no pleasure in the death of the wicked, how much more does he have no pleasure in the death of the righteous. His pleasure is that the wicked turns from his way and lives. God's rejoicing is over the sinner who repents, not over the death of the Righteous One. The context of Isaiah bears out this understanding, that God's pleasure over the death of his Servant is not the questionable pleasure of having his wrath satisfied, but the pleasure of taking away our sins. "Yet it pleased the LORD to bruise him; he has put him to grief. When you shall make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of the LORD shall prosper in his hand. He shall see the travail of his soul and be satisfied; by his knowledge shall my righteous servant justify many, for he shall bear their iniquities. Therefore I will divide him a portion with the great ..." (Isaiah 53:10-12)For if God does not delight in the death of the sinner, then how much more does he not delight in the death of the Righteous. He delights that the wicked turn from his way and live.